A narrower follow-up, since the general answer is now clear:
Did your prescriber agree with that reading, and if not what was their objection?
A narrower follow-up, since the general answer is now clear:
Did your prescriber agree with that reading, and if not what was their objection?
SaraMom3 said:There is a difference between no evidence and evidence of no effect, and this subject is one where the two get swapped freely in both directions.
I read this differently from SaraMom3, on substance rather than tone. I would resist the confidence. Half of what this board was certain about two years ago has since been quietly dropped, and nobody went back to correct the threads.
SaraMom3 said:There is a difference between no evidence and evidence of no effect, and this subject is one where the two get swapped freely in both directions.
True, and it depends on a baseline nobody has stated. Without knowing where someone started, the same number can be an excellent result or a disappointing one.
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Shop Reference StandardsSaraMom3 said:There is a difference between no evidence and evidence of no effect, and this subject is one where the two get swapped freely in both directions.
Genuinely useful, thank you. I had the facts and not the framework. Printing the relevant bit and taking it with me.
Adding the clinical framing, because it changes how the question reads. If two explanations both fit, the useful question is which one predicts something the other does not. That is answerable; arguing about which sounds more plausible is not.