Putting this up for argument rather than for agreement. I have read it twice and I am still not certain what it supports.
Most of the hormonal change here is a consequence of adiposity falling rather than a drug effect. Less adipose tissue means less aromatase activity, so in men testosterone commonly rises and estradiol falls, and SHBG rises as insulin resistance improves — which means total testosterone can rise while free testosterone moves less than expected. In PCOS, improved insulin sensitivity frequently restores ovulation, which is a fertility change people are not always expecting.
Where I think it is weakest: the follow-up is short relative to how long people actually take these drugs, so durability is an assumption here rather than a finding.
So the question, as narrowly as I can put it: why total and free can move differently here, and which of the two is worth tracking. I have searched first, so if this is covered somewhere point me at it and I will read it.
Note on sourcing:
Figures above are from the primary publication rather than the press summary. If a number here disagrees with one you have, post yours and we will work out which of us is reading a secondary source.