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ForumsPublic SquareGLP-1 and inflammatory markers — need advice Page 2

GLP-1 and inflammatory markers — need advice

labquiet_amy Sat, Jul 12, 2025 at 7:30 AM 42 replies 1,888 viewsPage 2 of 9
PharmD_Rodriguez
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Jul 12, 2025 at 12:28 PM#6
LarryQC_SD said:
Relative and absolute effects need reading together.

Pushing back on LarryQC_SD here. I would add the less popular caveat: these trial populations under-represented several groups, older adults and the highest BMI categories among them. The results probably generalise, and "probably" should be stated as an assumption rather than dropped.

11 6paul_denver, TinaHashiRN, robert_kc and 8 others
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lisa_labSD
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Jul 12, 2025 at 2:25 PM#7
labquiet_amy said:
I keep finding that the number in the press summary and the number in the paper are not the same number, and the difference is always in the same…
labquiet_amy said:
...regarding the trial evidence...

I think this is an underappreciated point. To expand on it with some data:

A recent meta-analysis of 12 RCTs (n=8,400) found that the trial evidence was associated with a significant effect size across diverse patient populations[1].

The NNT was 8, which is comparable to statins for secondary prevention. That's a strong clinical argument for this approach.

Last edited: Jul 12, 2025 at 5:25 PM
10 5maya_sedona, stefan_berlin, Dr.EM_Chicago and 7 others
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Dr.PathRoch
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Jul 12, 2025 at 4:22 PM#8
PharmD_Rodriguez said:
I would add the less popular caveat: these trial populations under-represented several groups, older adults and the highest BMI categories among them.

Forest plot interpretation for the the trial evidence meta-analysis: when reading the pooled estimate, pay attention to:

  1. Point estimate (HR/RR/OR) — center of the diamond
  2. Confidence interval width — precision of the estimate
  3. I² statistic — heterogeneity across studies
  4. Individual study weights — are results driven by one large trial?
  5. Prediction interval — range of plausible true effects in future settings

The the trial evidence meta-analysis shows a pooled RR of 0.77 (95% CI 0.67-0.82), I²=50%. This is a robust and consistent effect.

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steve_okc
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Jul 12, 2025 at 6:19 PM#9

Following on from Dr.DermMIA — and this may be the naive question:

How would you tell the difference between that and the alternative explanation?

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labquiet_amy
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Jul 13, 2025 at 3:39 AM#10

Closing the loop on my own question.

Update — my curve sits below the published mean and the explanation is that the trial arm had support I do not have. That was reassuring rather than otherwise.

Last edited: Jul 13, 2025 at 5:39 AM
18 18pete_manc_UK, anna.melb_AU, mark_tokyo and 15 others
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