Read the primary source rather than the write-up and the two do not agree, so here is what is actually in it.
This is telogen effluvium and the trigger is the rate of weight loss rather than the molecule. Rapid loss pushes a large fraction of follicles into the resting phase simultaneously; they shed together two to four months later, which is why the shedding starts long after the loss did and why people misattribute the timing. It is self-limiting, and regrowth follows once the rate slows — the follicles are not damaged.
Where I think it is weakest: the comparator does most of the work in how this gets reported, and it is not the comparator most people think they are citing.
What I am after is whether the shedding is the drug or the rate of loss, and when it stops. Tell me what I have not thought of.
Note on sourcing:
Figures above are from the primary publication rather than the press summary. If a number here disagrees with one you have, post yours and we will work out which of us is reading a secondary source.