Small molecule vs peptide GLP-1 agonists — anyone have experience?

traveltech_sara said:

Most of what circulates confidently in this community traces back to one summary of one study, and the qualifier was dropped somewhere in the third…

Adding the part of the answer the thread has not reached. If two explanations both fit, the useful question is which one predicts something the other does not. That is answerable; arguing about which sounds more plausible is not.

One concrete data point for the thread. For anyone reading later: the numbers in this thread are worth checking against a primary source before you act on them, including mine. Half the figures circulating in this community trace back to a secondary summary that dropped a qualifier.

Following on from traveltech_sara — and this may be the naive question:

How would you tell the difference between that and the alternative explanation?

PeptideSynthNJ said:

For anyone reading later: the numbers in this thread are worth checking against a primary source before you act on them, including mine.

I am going to disagree with the direction of travel here. The thread has converged on the tidiest answer rather than the best-supported one, and those are not the same thing.

Closing the loop on my own question.

Following up because I said I would. I changed one thing, left everything else alone, and waited the full interval before looking. It resolved, and I cannot prove which half of that did it.