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ForumsPharmacology & MechanismsHas anyone dealt with is there a simple version of how sema vs tirz are different?

Has anyone dealt with is there a simple version of how sema vs tirz are different?

fiona_glasgow Mon, Jan 20, 2025 at 10:26 AM 26 replies 1,812 viewsPage 1 of 6
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fiona_glasgow
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Jan 20, 2025 at 10:26 AM#1

Read the primary source rather than the write-up and the two do not agree, so here is what is actually in it.

The pharmacokinetics explain nearly every practical question asked here. Albumin binding above 99% slows clearance enough to make weekly dosing possible; a terminal half-life near a week means four to five weeks to steady state and therefore a four-week titration interval; subcutaneous bioavailability around 89% means injection site barely matters. Those three facts answer most timing questions before they are asked.

Where I think it is weakest: the subgroup findings are the part I trust least — with enough subgroups something is always significant, and these were not all pre-registered.

What I am after is which effects tachyphylax and which persist, because the answer explains why tolerability improves while the appetite effect keeps working. Not looking for reassurance. Looking for the part I have got wrong.

Note on sourcing:
Figures above are from the primary publication rather than the press summary. If a number here disagrees with one you have, post yours and we will work out which of us is reading a secondary source.
16 11TrialTracker_MD, JennaRN, LabKate and 13 others
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Dr.NateNeph
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Jan 20, 2025 at 11:15 AM#2
fiona_glasgow said:
The pharmacokinetics explain nearly every practical question asked here.

Receptor pharmacology relevant to the pharmacology: semaglutide is a GLP-1R agonist with a C-18 fatty acid chain that enables albumin binding (>99%), creating a depot effect with a ~168-hour half-life enabling weekly dosing[1].

Tirzepatide is a dual GIP/GLP-1R agonist with higher GIP affinity (5:1 GIP:GLP-1 potency ratio). The GIP component may enhance beta-cell function and adipocyte lipid metabolism beyond what GLP-1 alone achieves.

For the pharmacology, the pharmacology explains the clinical differences between these agents.

References:
[1] Lau J, et al. J Med Chem. 2015;58(18):7370-7380.
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CarlaRPh_TPA
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Jan 20, 2025 at 12:04 PM#3
fiona_glasgow said:
The pharmacokinetics explain nearly every practical question asked here.

Pushing back on fiona_glasgow here. The mechanism is more central than most summaries suggest. Receptor agonism in the arcuate nucleus activates POMC neurons and inhibits AgRP/NPY signalling, and the downstream MC4R pathway is the same one disrupted in monogenic obesity — convergent genetic evidence that the target is the right one. Peripherally there is glucose-dependent insulin secretion, glucagon suppression and delayed gastric emptying, but the gastric component largely adapts over months while the central effect persists, which is why the durable effect is appetite rather than fullness.

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hans_munich
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Jan 20, 2025 at 12:52 PM#4
CarlaRPh_TPA said:
The mechanism is more central than most summaries suggest.

Amycretin (AMY/GLP-1 dual agonist) emerging data relevant to the pharmacology: Phase 1 showed -13.1% body weight at only 12 weeks, the fastest trajectory ever seen for an anti-obesity agent[1].

Amylin receptor agonism enhances satiety signaling through the area postrema and reduces glucagon secretion. Combined with GLP-1R agonism, this dual mechanism may produce even greater efficacy than current agents.

Early-stage data — interpret with caution. But the trajectory is extraordinary.

References:
[1] Novo Nordisk investor presentation, September 2023.
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patPC_UT
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Jan 20, 2025 at 5:26 PM#5
Dr.NateNeph said:
Receptor pharmacology relevant to the pharmacology: semaglutide is a GLP-1R agonist with a C-18 fatty acid chain that enables albumin binding (>99%),…

Can confirm. Same sequence, different timescale. Nothing to add that would improve it.

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